Kandinsky
Curious Cat
I can't make my mind up about the cattle mutilation stories. It isn't a subject that gets much of my attention, but I've read a little about it. I've also been pulled up in the past for not checking my sources on the subject. Some explanations range from testing for prions or radiation from weapons testing. I'm Swiss on the subject...neutral.
I've seen the comparative images of predation, degeneration and bloat causing the appearance of incisions and cuts. It's pretty compelling and certainly offers a 'prosaic' explanation. If most are an outcome of natural causes and predation, why not all cases?
The thing is, doesn't this argument run along the same lines as identifying Venus in a UFO report and concluding *all* UFO reports can be identified conventionally? Can *all* reports be assigned to conventional explanation? Case solved with a knowing smile...
One point that leaves me undecided is the contexts of these reports...specifically the people making the reports. Livestock farmers allow for and accept that a certain % of their animals will be found dead of numerous causes (rate of attrition). Typically, they represent a family trade and have the experience of their lives and those of preceding generations and neighbours. They've seen dead animals. They've seen predation and decomposition...it's a way of life surely?
In that light, how likely would it be that they can't tell the difference between a naturally dead animal and one with unusual post-mortem features? Also, why mainly cattle? Don't all livestock have the potential of being found dead...sheep, goats, horses? What about alpacas or llamas?
I wonder, what makes a livestock farmer statistically more likely to misidentify natural predation in cattle as being from artificial causes? Are they always accurate with other animals and somehow prone to mistakes identifying cause of death in cattle? This, to me, presents a flaw in the internal logic of *all* 'mutilated' cattle being misidentified natural predation.
I've seen the comparative images of predation, degeneration and bloat causing the appearance of incisions and cuts. It's pretty compelling and certainly offers a 'prosaic' explanation. If most are an outcome of natural causes and predation, why not all cases?
The thing is, doesn't this argument run along the same lines as identifying Venus in a UFO report and concluding *all* UFO reports can be identified conventionally? Can *all* reports be assigned to conventional explanation? Case solved with a knowing smile...
One point that leaves me undecided is the contexts of these reports...specifically the people making the reports. Livestock farmers allow for and accept that a certain % of their animals will be found dead of numerous causes (rate of attrition). Typically, they represent a family trade and have the experience of their lives and those of preceding generations and neighbours. They've seen dead animals. They've seen predation and decomposition...it's a way of life surely?
In that light, how likely would it be that they can't tell the difference between a naturally dead animal and one with unusual post-mortem features? Also, why mainly cattle? Don't all livestock have the potential of being found dead...sheep, goats, horses? What about alpacas or llamas?
I wonder, what makes a livestock farmer statistically more likely to misidentify natural predation in cattle as being from artificial causes? Are they always accurate with other animals and somehow prone to mistakes identifying cause of death in cattle? This, to me, presents a flaw in the internal logic of *all* 'mutilated' cattle being misidentified natural predation.