smcder
Paranormal Adept
Re the sentence highlighted in red, note that Panksepp says that the explanatory gap is "narrowed" by affective neuroscientific analysis, not that it is closed. Nor does he say that the explanatory gap can be dismissed through cognitive neuroscience or information theory or AI.
Re the blue-highlighted portion of the extracted text, we should discuss what we (from our diverse approaches) interpret Panksepp to mean in these statements. I'll start. I think he means to say that the explanatory gap is less a gap than current analytical POM proposes, and that we will recognize what the gap signifies when we better understand the evolution of consciousness, brain, and mind.
quoting from Panksepp in 1998: "Those types of arousal that are not resonant with the resting rhythms of the SELF, may generate withdrawal behaviours and be experienced as un- desirable. Those that are resonant with the resting rhythms or facilitate certain har- monics of those rhythms may be deemed desirable. At this level of analysis, the ‘explanatory gap’ between neural, bodily and affective activities appears narrowed considerably. In any event, whether such understandable neural dynamics actually mediate affective experience becomes an empirically testable proposition (Freeman, 1995; Panksepp, 1999a). Only with additional encephalization, and the emergence of sophisticated learning abilities, including facility with languages that can re-symbolize such basic neuronal firing patterns, might a ‘conceptual gap’ have emerged. In other words, I think the explanatory gap is constructed by the ways we think about these matters linguistically rather than by the underlying primary-process brain matters themselves."
This part:
At this level of analysis, the ‘explanatory gap’ between neural, bodily and affective activities appears narrowed considerably. In any event, whether such understandable neural dynamics actually mediate affective experience becomes an empirically testable proposition
I guess seems pretty obvious to me - I don't think we'd expect anything other than some correlation between these "activities" -
But this part, I'm less sure of:
Only with additional encephalization, and the emergence of sophisticated learning abilities, including facility with languages that can re-symbolize such basic neuronal firing patterns, might a ‘conceptual gap’ have emerged. In other words, I think the explanatory gap is constructed by the ways we think about these matters linguistically rather than by the underlying primary-process brain matters themselves."
I'm not sure exactly where the gap is? It must refer to the specifics of how the emotional "system" works and how it is experienced and talked about ... and it doesn't mention any other kind of thinking here than linguistically ... ? This must also be where the rival theory we looked at comes in - I think any theory that doesn't take into account what we do with our experiences is going to fall short - that was the cognitive revolution way, way back in response to Skinnerian behaviorism and see also my post above about psychotherapy - surely he's not talking about that?